I wonder sometimes if we are currently over-focused on white privilege as opposed to black disprivilege.

I absolutely acknowledge that the latter exists on a wide and deep scale; and I do see that flipping the perceptual framework (so that it's about white people *having* something, rather than black people *not having* it) can be enlightening.

But: is it really a zero-sum game? Does every black disprivilege actually mean a white privilege (or vice-versa)? I don't claim to have an easy answer to that, but it does trouble me as a concept.

Barnaby is a journalist based in Suffolk, UK. By day he covers science and public policy; by night, film and classical music. He has also been a cinema manager.

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